There's obviously more land in the northern hemisphere than the southern, but at some point, there must be a line of latitude where the area of land above and below is exactly the same. Is it the same latitude as the centroid of Earth's landmass?

See: What is Centroid of all lands of Earth?

closed as unclear what you're asking by PolyGeo Nov 25 '17 at 6:54

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  • 3
    While interesting from a geography trivia standpoint, I don't see how this is a GIS question. – Vince Sep 25 '16 at 11:19
  • 4
    As per @Vince's comment, could you rephrase this as a 'how to calculate' question, showing some initial work on how you'd go about doing it? – Simbamangu Sep 25 '16 at 11:54
  • My gis.stackexchange.com/a/191054/1462 doesn't answer this question, but may be helpful. – barrycarter Sep 25 '16 at 12:24
  • @Simbamangu is right that the real question is "how do you calculate the mean latitude of all the Earth's land surface." I assume I would take a shapefiles and do some sort of integration calculation, but i don't really know any details on GIS software. – carpiediem Sep 27 '16 at 0:21
  • If I used an image that uses an equal-area projection in the algorithm that @barrycarter linked to, would that give me a reasonably accurate answer? – carpiediem Sep 27 '16 at 0:27

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